Answer:
The bag will get smaller
Explanation:
Osmosis can be defined as the process of diffusion or movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration of water (i.e., lower concentration solution) to a lower concentration of water. For example, in cells, there are specialized pores called 'aquaporins' which are membrane proteins that form channels to transport water molecules by facilitated diffusion. In this case, the outside of the bag has a higher salt concentration than inside, thereby water molecules will move by facilitated diffusion through pores from inside to outside the bag.
The most basic organization level of life is a ____________. A. membrane B. tissue C. cell D. organ
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The answer is...
C. Cell.
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Which of the following are the three areas of the tundra biome? (Choose all that apply.)
Arctic
Asian
Antarctic
alpine
Answer:
The three areas of the tundra biome are artic, antarctic and alpine.
In the cell bio lab, we use company manufactured gels, however you can make you own polyacrylamide gels. List all of the ingredients found in an SDS-PAGE gel. Which ingredients are responsible for polymerizing the solution?
Answer:
The list of ingredients are used in this method are as follow-
1. Acrylamide - mostly 30%
2. Bisacrylamide - mostly 0.8%
3. 1.5M Tris-Hcl pH 6.8 for stacking gel and 8.8 for separating gel.
4. 10% SDS
5. 10% APS
6. TEMED
7. Double distilled water
Polymerization:
Acrylamide is a polymer that is used to dissolved in buffer and bisacrylamide is the cross linking agen.
Two types of gels are prepared for separation of protein. Stacking gel is usually 4 or 6% and separating gel is usually 10 to 20%. Lower concentration of stacking gel will allow the migration of all the protein same because of larger pore size. It will stack or line up the proteins for its next level of separation.
Higher concentration of separating gel will provide resistance to the movement of protein because of the low pore size and therefore linear bands can be achieved neatly.
The structure in the male reproductive system of rabbit which releases nutritious secretions for sperms
is called
O a.
Seminal vesicles
O b. Spermatogonia vesicles
Ос.
Cowper's vesicles
Answer:
I think the answer is A
Explanation:
A search of the definitions of each option
Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is true? Select one: A. All known varieties are autotrophic. B. Their walls are usually composed of silica plates. C. Many types lack mitochondria. D. Some produce toxic agents in the water E. Their dead cells accumulate on the seafloor, and are mined to serve as a filtering material.
Answer: The correct option is D(Some produce toxic agents in the water).
Explanation:
Dinoflagellates are found in the phylum Dinoflagellata which are single celled organisms. They are mostly found in the ocean while few of them can live in streams, freshwater ponds and rivers. The following characteristics can be used to identify a Dinoflagellates, these include:
--> they are golden brown
--> they possess assimilative cell with indented waist.
--> they possess large nucleus with visible chromosomes.
It has been reported that many dinoflagellate species can produce various natural toxins. These toxins can be extremely toxic and many of them are effective at far lower dosages than conventional chemical agents. Therefore the option, Some produce toxic agents in the water, is a correct statement.
The most intense earthquakes happen at
1. Plate boundaries
2.subduction zones
3.mid - ocean ridges
4. Collision plate boundaries
Answer:
The answer is #2. Subduction Zones
A population of 100 sea stars is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The trait for long arms is completely dominant to the trait for short arms. In this population, 40% of the alleles for this trait are dominant, and 60% are recessive. What percent of sea stars in this population are heterozygous
Answer:
In population genetics, the Hardy–Weinberg principle, also known as the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, model, theorem, or law, states that allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences
Explanation:
An allele frequency is computed by dividing the total number of copies of all the alleles at that specific genetic locus in the population by the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population. The decimal, percentage, or fractional forms of allele frequencies are all acceptable.
What sea stars are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, model, theorem, or law of population genetics states that, in the absence of additional evolutionary factors, allele, and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation.
Therefore, The lesson and figure 12.12's allele frequencies are used in this question as well. The percentage of individuals with two dominant arm length alleles can be calculated by multiplying 0.6 by 0.6. The population size (100 people) multiplied by that percentage yields the number of people that are homozygous dominant for the arm length allele.
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sexual reproduction study's
Explanation:
join
Goole meet
rej-evxq-xcb
Which inherited characteristic will this toucan pass on to its offspring?
I am really bad at bio and brainly has helped me a lot!!!!!
Answer:
B. Black fur
Explanation:
The last two options are normal to a bird.
Answer:
A colorful beak
Explanation:
got it right on my quiz
hope this helped now I peace out ✌
what is fermentation process?
Answer:
Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrates through the action of enzymes. In biochemistry, it is narrowly defined as the extraction of energy from carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen.
Explanation:
I hope it will help you
Answer:
Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrates through the action of enzymes through chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other microorganisms,
Explanation:
Have a nice day
Eukaryotes are different than Prokaryotes, because only eukaryotes have:
A. DNA
B. Capsule
C. Organelles
D. Plasma membrane
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Have a nice day
Eukaryotes are different from prokaryotes because only eukaryotes have Organelles. The correct option is C.
What are prokaryotes?Prokaryotes are primitive organism that is single-celled and their cell contains a capsule and flagella or cilia for locomotion and finding food. These organisms lack true organelles.
Eukaryotes are organisms that can be single-celled or multi-celled. They contain the true nucleus and organelle in the cell and the cell is covered with a cell membrane and a nucleus is present that contains the DNA or the organism.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, both contain DNA, a plasma membrane. But in prokaryotes, an organelle is absent, and they are covered by a capsule.
Thus, the correct option is C. Organelles.
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what are the points included in women's rights
Answer:
Explanation:These later evolved into six general points of equality for women: political, occupational, moral, social, economic and legal.
4.In humans, the allele which confers the ability to roll the tongue is dominant over the allele which does not confer the ability to roll the tongue. If a man who can roll his tongue and whose mother could not mates with a woman who cannot roll her tongue, what proportion of the children would be expected to be able to roll their tongues if they have a large number of children
Answer:
The correct answer is - 1/2
Explanation:
the ability to roll the tongue is dominant over those who can not roll the tongue. The man is Rr (man), heterozygous. The woman is recessive and can not roll
Rr (man) x rr (woman)---Parents
r
R Rr (roll)
r rr (cann't roll)
The probability of their children to able to roll = 1/2 = 50%
Which of these is the best definition of sustainable development?
A. Development that makes sure buildings are strong enough to sustain large hurricanes and earthquakes
B. Development that's typical of underdeveloped nations that derive their products directly from nature
C. Development that's supported by public opinion
D. Development that ensures the protection of the environment in the long term
Answer:
option D
Explanation:
is the correct answer
Development which basically ensures the protection of the environment in the long term is sustainable development. The correct option is D.
What is sustainable development?Sustainable development is defined as growth that fulfills the requirements of the moment without jeopardizing future generations' capacity to meet their own needs.
The financial, social, and environmental measurements of sustainable development are examined.
The authors contend that material-intensive conventional productivity recovery is unsustainable in the long term unless environmental and social factors are prioritized equally.
Environmental protection aims to preserve as well as restore a healthy natural environment.
Sustainable development incorporates ecologic, social, and economic goals in order to achieve long-term equitable growth that benefits both the present and the future.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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what is the Biology?
Answer:
This is the study of life
Linda received the flu vaccine this year.
Which of the following statements is true?
Linda's T-cells will produce memory cells against the virus.
Linda's body will produce antigens against the flu virus.
Linda's immune system will produce lifelong immunity against any form of the flu.
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus.
Answer:
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus
Answer:
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus
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Cystathioninuria can be caused by two different mutations in the enzyme cystathionase. Cystathioninuria caused by mutation 1 can be overcome by providing cells with increasing concentrations of the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate. Which of the following statements describe the most likely changes in the binding affinities of the two mutant enzymes?
A. Both mutant enzymes have lost the ability to bind the substrates.
B. The enzyme with mutation 1 has lost the ability to bind to the substrates, whereas the enzyme with mutation 2 has lost the ability to bind to pyridoxal phosphate.
C. The enzyme with mutation 1 has decreased affinity for pyridoxal phosphate, whereas the enzyme with mutation 2 has lost the ability to bind to the substrates.
D. Both mutant enzymes have lost the ability to bind pyridoxal phosphate.
Answer:
C. The enzyme with mutation 1 has decreased affinity for pyridoxal phosphate, whereas the enzyme with mutation 2 has lost the ability to bind to the substrates.
Explanation:
A coenzyme is an organic cofactor that binds with an enzyme in order to initiate or aid the function of the enzyme. A coenzyme binds to the active site of the enzyme (where the reaction occurs), thereby triggering its activation by modifying protein structure during the reaction. Some examples of coenzymes include Coenzyme A and Adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme (it is the active form of vitamin B6) that is required for the function of cystathionase. Moreover, cystathionase is an enzyme that enables cells the synthesis of cysteine from methionine (transsulfuration pathway). The binding of pyridoxal phosphate to the enzyme increases the binding affinity of the enzyme for the substrate, thereby influencing its activity. In this case, it is expected that mutation 1 reduces the binding affinity of the enzyme to the cofactor, and thereby the cofactor is required at a higher concentration to restore normal enzyme activity.
All of the following statements about ferns are correct except:_________
A) ferns flourish in many habitats, but the majority are located in the tropics.
B) the sporophyte is a conspicuous generation.
C) sori are located on the back or ventral surface of fronds.
D) the gametophyte is a conspicuous generation.
E) ferns have underground stems called rhizomes.
Answer: B) because in higher plants, such as angiosperms and gymnosperms, the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
All of the following statements about ferns are correct except the gametophyte is a conspicuous generation. Therefore, the correct option is D.
In ferns the gametophyte is usually much smaller and less noticeable, whereas the sporophyte is the more noticeable generation. The sporophyte, the famous giant pearl fern plant, is a major stage in the fern life cycle. Gametes (eggs and sperm) are produced by the gametophyte, which is a small, autonomous stage responsible for sexual reproduction.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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A husband and wife have a child who suffers from cystic fibrosis (CF), an incurable, fatal hereditary disease that results in frequent infections and difficulty breathing. The couple wants to determine their risk of having another child with this disorder. Because CF is a recessive disorder, a child usually must inherit the CF gene from both parents to get the disease. A child with just one CF gene is a carrier: Such a person doesn't have the disorder 'but can pass the trait on to the next generation. The DNA test revealed that the mother of the child carried the CF trait; however, her husband did not. The DNA tests showed that he was not the biological father of the child.
This test has put the counselor in a difficult situation. Should the counselor tell the couple about the nonpaternity findings? Should the mother be told privately? If so, is the center colluding with the mother to withhold information from the husband? In addition, this case brings up issues concerning the biological father of the child. This man has not contracted with the genetics center for the test, yet the counselor now knows that this man is probably a carrier of the mutant gene for CF.
Required:
a. Should the genetic counselor call this man and tell him about his risk?
b. What would you do if you were the genetic counselor?
c. Present arguments for both sides of the issue.
Answer:
Both
Explanation:
Risk because the genetic counsler does too much argument
A group of archaic mammals that at times are referred to as mammal-like primates characterized by claws instead of nails, no postorbital bar, arboreal quadrupeds, and best known from Montana and lived during the geologic Paleocene Epoch are referred to as:
Which unit in the metric system is used to measure the mass of a boulder?
Answer:
Cubic feet
Explanation:
Which of the following factors would LIMIT carrying capacity?
A. Far from factories or roads
B. A large nearby river
C. Abundant food
D. A small space to live in
Answer:
D. A small space to live in
Explanation:
Having a small space to live in would directly limit carrying capacity.
Since there is a small space, only a few organisms would be able to live in that space.
This means that carrying capacity is limited, because the space does not have enough room to sustain more people.
So, the correct answer is D. A small space to live in
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The diagram below shows four layers of Earth.
Which of these layers of Earth contains mainly solid iron? (100 points)
Layer A
Layer B
Layer C
Layer D
Answer:
Layer A
Explanation:
The innermost layer that is present at the center of the earth is mainly made up of solid iron. So option A is correct.
The innermost layer of the Earth is the innermost core. The innermost core is a solid metal ball composed mostly of iron. Inside the innermost core, temperatures are extremely high, with an estimated inner core temperature of 7200–8 500ºF (4000–4 700ºC). The innermost core of the Earth is not molten like the outermost core.
The solid inner core lies 3,200 kilometers below the Earth’s crust and is separated from the semi-solid mantle by a liquid outer core.
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Chlorophylls are a. seen best in carrots, beets, and red ferns. b. pigments that absorb only blue and green wavelengths. c. the main pigments that absorb the wavelengths most efficient at driving photosynthesis. d. All of the answers are correct.
Answer:
....kghvkhbiblyhlugkufv
Explanation:.....
Answer:A
Explanation:
I think A because they are all plants
Which of the following pathway would a protein destined for the interior of the nucleus follow
Answer: The protein is translated on free ribosomes and then passes through the pore complex to enter the nucleus.
Explanation:
The correct air track for a human respiratory system is
A.
-
B.
trachea - bronchus - bronchiole alveoli
trachea - bronchiole - bronchus alveoli
bronchus -
trachea
alveoli
bronchiole
trachea alveoli bronchus
bronchiole
С.
u
D.
Answer: Air enters through the nose (and sometimes the mouth), moves through the nasal cavity, the pharynx, the larynx, enters the trachea, moves through the bronchi and bronchioles till the alveoli.
Explanation:The pathway of air in the respiratory system starts with the external organs of the nose and mouth.
Nose: Air is inhaled through the nostrils (and sometimes through the mouth) where it is filtered by the hairs and cilia to remove dust particles and moistened. The nasal cavity also moderates the temperature of the inhaled air.
Pharynx: This is a common passage for food, water, and air. It leads from both the nose and the mouth and leads to both the trachea (windpipe) and the oesophagus (foodpipe).
Larynx: This is the voice box situated just over the trachea and has a flap called the epiglottis which closes during swallowing to prevent food from entering the trachea and opens during breathing.
Trachea: Air now enters the windpipe which is situated behind the sternum (breastbone) and between the two lungs.
Bronchus: From the trachea, two bronchi (one bronchus for each lung) enter the lungs and divide and subdivide into secondary and tertiary bronchi, getting narrower as they proceed into the lung.
Bronchioles: The tertiary bronchi branch into fine tubules called bronchioles, the last passageways for air.
Alveoli:. Air ends its pathway in the alveoli (sing. alveolus) which are tiny sacs with very fine singe-celled walls. These alveoli are surrounded by capillaries that connect the pulmonary arteries and veins and that enable transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Wheres the cell membrane located?
Answer:
in cells the cell membrain is located in the middel but this can vary in diffrent cells Explanation:
In sweet peas, the genes for flower color and pollen grain shape are 11 cM apart. A pure-breeding purple flowering plant with round pollen grains is crossed to a pure-breeding red flowering plant with long pollen grains. The resulting F1 offspring are all purple flowering plants with long pollen grains. What percent of offspring from a test cross analysis of the F1 individuals would you expect to be purple flowering plants with long pollen grains
Answer:
The correct answer is - 44.5%.
Explanation:
In this question, there are two traits are given, flower color and pollen shape. The purple flowers and long pollen are wild-type (dominant). Red flowers and round pollen are mutant or recessive. The cross is between a pure breeding purple and round pollen plant with red and long pollen plant. The offspring are all purple and long pollen plants. However, the offspring would be all heterozygotes genotype for both traits.
Linkage can be calculated as -
Linkage distance = % of recombinant offsprings formed in a test cross.
parental types are purple and long pollen, red and round pollen.
So, the recombinant type would be purple and round pollen, red and long pollen.
11% of the offspring would be recombinant type as the distance is 11cM. Therefore, 89% of the progeny would be parental type. Which means this 89% of parental offsprings have equal proportions of both phenotypes of parents. So, the purple flowers and long pollen would be half of 89%.
that is 89/2 = 44.5%.
the valency of flourin is 1 what is the valence electron
Answer:
Fluorine has 7 valence electrons and would need another one to have a full outer valence electrons.
In Drosophila melanogaster the recessive alleles for brown and scarlet eyes (of two independent genes) produce a novel phenotype so that bw/bw;st/st is white. If a pure-breeding brown is crossed to a pure-breeding scarlet, what proportion of the F2 will be white
